Let's say I have a small 10W practice amp which uses a 6.5" 8ohm speaker. Could I use a 4ohm speaker in series with a 4ohm, at least 10W resistor to get 8ohms total load on the power amp?
(Disclaimer: I know impedance and resistance aren't the same. The goal would simply be to get the load close enough to 8ohms that I wouldn't tax the power amp.)
Real world: I have an Orange Crush that I want to mod to be more clean and hi-fi sounding, basically the way it sounds through headphones when the speaker is bypassed. I'm thinking a cheap solution would be a 6.5" coaxial car speaker, which would have a much fuller frequency response. Problem is, 4ohms is the standard value. However, I could get a pair of decent 25W speakers for ~$25.
The extra would replace one of the blown front speakers in my '94 Berretta. I know this is a dumb-ish plan, but I really dig the way my U1 sounds direct to powered speakers or a recording console.
Speaker impedence question
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mellowlogic
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pretty sure impedance and resistance are additive in series, so yea I think 4+4 should be 8 in this situation.
I could be wrong though, Im hardly an expert :p
I could be wrong though, Im hardly an expert :p
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