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Speaker impedence question

Posted: Sun Mar 29, 2009 5:23 am
by Will
Let's say I have a small 10W practice amp which uses a 6.5" 8ohm speaker. Could I use a 4ohm speaker in series with a 4ohm, at least 10W resistor to get 8ohms total load on the power amp?

(Disclaimer: I know impedance and resistance aren't the same. The goal would simply be to get the load close enough to 8ohms that I wouldn't tax the power amp.)

Real world: I have an Orange Crush that I want to mod to be more clean and hi-fi sounding, basically the way it sounds through headphones when the speaker is bypassed. I'm thinking a cheap solution would be a 6.5" coaxial car speaker, which would have a much fuller frequency response. Problem is, 4ohms is the standard value. However, I could get a pair of decent 25W speakers for ~$25.

The extra would replace one of the blown front speakers in my '94 Berretta. I know this is a dumb-ish plan, but I really dig the way my U1 sounds direct to powered speakers or a recording console.

Posted: Sun Mar 29, 2009 3:16 pm
by mellowlogic
pretty sure impedance and resistance are additive in series, so yea I think 4+4 should be 8 in this situation.

I could be wrong though, Im hardly an expert :p

Posted: Sun Mar 29, 2009 4:16 pm
by Mike
Yeah you can do this. Primitive Attenuators are just high wattage rheostats.

Posted: Sun Mar 29, 2009 6:13 pm
by Will
Awesome. I've got to order some new filter caps from Weber cause my Ampeg bit the dust (AGAIN). I'll grab some big resistors and get this thing STERILE CLEAN.

Thanks guys!